Tuesday, March 24, 2015

46 Free CFA Level 2 Mock Exam Questions and Answers on Fixed Income

You’re about to embark on your journey to CFA charter holder, but you have no clue where to begin. Well, our site would be very glad to help by providing you with some tips as well as many CFA sample exam questions free of where to begin in 46 Free CFA Level 2 Mock Exam Questions and Answers on Fixed Income. All questions are designed in the multiple choice format and given instant answers at the end of the test in order to compare your results with ease. Just click the submit button to mark yourself after test completion. With an emphasis on basic knowledge, the test smooths the way for developing a good grounding of this topic and problem-solving skills within the learning process. Finish all the following questions to see how well you can entirely grasp this topic.
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highly predictable life for the PAC tranche- initial PAC collar gives a range- the planned amortization schedule promised to the PAC I tranche is the minimum of the two prepayment speeds
potential to change two notches
- never use nominal spread- Z-spread is only used with no prepayment bonds (autos, credit cards)- if not IR dependent, use binomial model- if dependent, use Monte Carlo
- associated with interest rate increases and falling prepayment rates- fewer repayments, bond values fall, and investors get their principal back slower and can't reinvest
- lately, it is a 1st lien on property owned by a borrower that has a marginal credit history- closed end HELs are like normal loans- Non-accelerating senior tranches (NAS) usually don't receive prepayments early on and then receive a lot later one
- increases the option costs and reduces the value of the MBS (which is short the prepayment option)
- there is no credit risk (issue and and benchmark are assumed to be the same)- liquidity risk relative to issuer's other securities (typically small)- thus, since all risks are basically removed, OAS of 0 = fairly valued
- each class of bonds is retired sequentially- last tranche is called the Z-tranche or the accrual tranche
- must be added to every spot rate along every interest rate path- MBS are interest rate path dependent, thus you can't use backward induction- cheap securities have high OAS relative to the required OAS and low option costs (for a given Z-spread and effective duration)
- prepayments are not significant (small loans, quickly depreciating assets, low credit ratings)
- represents a claim against a pool of mortgages- passthrough rates are less than the average coupon rate due to fees- passthrough securities traded in the secondary market effectively converts illiquid mortgages into liquid securities, aka securitization
- the discount rate that makes the price of a MBS or ABS equal to the PV of its cash flows- in order to compute this, we must make a prepayment assumption and default/recovery assumptions if a non-agency issue- has reinvestment, price, and prepayment risk

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